Are they two different phenomena or same phenomena having different properties in different situations? In what scenario should we consider induced emf and in what scenario should we consider motional emf? And which of the following does faraday's law and lenz law mention about? Are both caused due to induced electric field?
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
-
cosmology - The difference between comoving and proper distances in defining the observable universe"The radius of the observable universe is estimated to be about 46.5 Gly." If I understand correctly, it means the most distant ob...
-
Everyone always talks about the efficiency of their appliances. I was wondering if everything was 100% efficient at heating its surroundings...
-
Are C1, C2 and C3 connected in parallel, or C2, C3 in parallel and C1 in series with C23? Btw it appeared as a question in the basic physics...
No comments:
Post a Comment