I have read in a few places that GR is renormalizable at one loop. (hep-th/9809169 for example, second sentence, although they don't seem to develop this point at all). Is this do to some hidden symmetry in the theory? Naively we need new counter terms at all orders, even one loop, in perturbation theory, right?
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classical mechanics - Moment of a force about a given axis (Torque) - Scalar or vectorial?
I am studying Statics and saw that: The moment of a force about a given axis (or Torque) is defined by the equation: $M_X = (\vec r \times \...
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In the crystal, infinitesimal translational symmetry breaking makes the phonon, In ferromagnet, time-reversal symmetry breaking makes magnon...
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A "Schrödinger's cat state" is a macroscopic superposition state. Quantum states can interfere in simple experiments (such as ...
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The degeneracy for an $p$-dimensional quantum harmonic oscillator is given by [ 1 ] as $$g(n,p) = \frac{(n+p-1)!}{n!(p-1)!}$$ The $g$ is the...
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