Wednesday, December 2, 2015

special relativity - How to make appropriate statements concerning simultaneity or sequence of pitches?


This answer The example of relativity of simultaneity given by Einstein to a recent question related to Einstein's thought-experimental definition of (how to determine) simultaneity contained the following statement:



Suppose two people, $C$ and $D$, stand equal distances from you and are known to pitch balls at exactly the same speed. With everyone standing at rest, $C$ and $D$ each toss you a ball. You get the ball from $C$ before the one from $D$. This is not a logical inconsistency. It simply means $C$ threw a ball before $D$ in your reference frame [emphasis added].




I believe that I understand the described setup and the conclusion ("It simply means $C$ threw a ball before $D$") as such. But I question whether it is necessary to add the qualification "in your reference frame".


Carefully applying Einstein's definition of (how to determine) simultaneity, as referenced above, which for the given setup involves a suitable observer "at the midpoint between $C$ and $D$", is there even any reference frame at all (necessarily other than "your reference frame") "in which" $C$ threw a ball *simultaneous to* $D$ throwing a ball ?


Or is there even any reference frame at all (again necessarily other than "your reference frame") "in which" $C$ threw a ball *after* $D$ ?


(If there are no such reference frames, then the qualification "in your reference frame" is apparently not necessary; and, indeed, it would seem inappropriate and misleading to add such a qualification as if it were necessary.)




standard model - If mesons were stable could they form atoms?


if there were stable enough mesons similar to protons and neutrons could they capture electrons to form exotic elements.


if not why is this not possible?



Answer



As anna mentioned, there are non quark models which clarify exotic hadrons. In principle, they are allowed in Quantum Chromodynamics (QCD). Non-quark models predict


1.hybrid mesons: Include quark anti-quark pair and gluon.


enter image description here


2.Glueballs: Gluons are their own bound states.


3.Exotic hadrons as in figure below



enter image description here


which exchange pion at low energies (couple of GeV scale) and can form a new bound state of multi-quarks as a $DD$ molecule. $D$ meson is one of the lightest meson which is very unstable check pdg list, indeed. It's mean life time about ~$10^{-15} s$.


Above these thresholds, there are some expected exotic hadrons which do not contribute quark model.


enter image description here


Big experiments such as LCHb, CMS at LHC, are trying to solve this puzzle. And so far, they observed X(3872), Z(4430), Y(4140) which are candidates of exotic hadrons. They did not fit into the quark model because they have unexpected narrow width and also unlikely branching ratios . These new particles are expected to have a non-quark form such as multi-quark exotic hadrons. The analysis of these particles still ongoing.


Tuesday, December 1, 2015

quantum chemistry - How can special relativity account for the electron orbital clouds of (stationary) heavy elements when electrons don't orbit in a classical way?


Einstein's famous mass-energy equivalence equation is still used for calculations, but still often considered less physically meaningful since the atoms that comprise a material don't actually gain more...atoms as the object increases its velocity. Or do they?


Despite the revolution in quantum physics that shows the motion of electrons around atoms isn't, in any way, actually like a planet orbiting a star, for some reason this doesn't seem to stop actual graduate scientists from continuing to conform to this inaccurate planet concept.



Multiple chemistry professors I have encountered, as well as apparently people like this fellow continue to state that this mass-energy equivalence is responsible for effects in heavy atoms under classical descriptions of velocity, and it turns out that these assumptions are somehow accurate.


So, if it is already established that electrons don't actually orbit a nucleus in a classical manner, how exactly is it that their "speed" around a stationary nucleus (with respect to the lab frame) can exhibit these localized special relativistic effects? What exactly is velocity supposed to mean in this context?




general relativity - Comparing predictions and reality for the gravitational attraction due to light beams


While doing some on-the-side reading, I stumbled across this question: Do two beams of light attract each other in general theory of relativity?. Great question and a great, easily understandable answer. In short, it explains that General Relativity allows photons/beams of light to gravitationally attract other things. It mentions a very important and well known phenomenon; that the deflection of light passing through the gravitational field of a massive particle is twice that predicted by Newtonian Gravitation. It also mentions and links to a wonderful article that shows that light beams travelling anti-parallel are deflected by each other's gravitation by four times what is predicted by Newtonian methods.


The Newtonian predictions were able to be made because of the commonly accepted gravitational mass for a photon, which effectively uses Einstein's $E=mc^2$ and Planck's $E=h f$ to get $m=h f/c^2$. Not a bad strategy.


My question is why we choose to equate the photon's gravitational mass with a hypothetical particle's rest mass? Given that the total energy of a photon (if you rescale the potential energy to 0) can be written as: $$Total~Energy=Kinetic~Energy+Rest~Energy$$ And given that it is nice to set the rest energy of our photon to $0$. Why then should we choose the mass on which to base the predictions using Newtonian Gravity to be a rest mass? Especially when Newtonian physics provides an adequate way of obtaining mass from kinetic energy (as long as that mass is used only in other Newtonian physics). I mean, why can we not say the following for purely Newtonian calculations: $$E=hf,~~K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2,~~Rest~Energy=E_o=0$$ $$\therefore hf=\frac{1}{2}mv^2\rightarrow m=2hf/v^2=2hf/c^2$$ This effectively doubles the gravitational mass of a light beam without altering the actual momentum of it. When predicting the deflection of a beam due to a massive particle, this would make the force of Newtonian gravitation twice as large and the fact that momentum didn't change means the deflection prediction would be twice as large. For the deflection of two antiparallel beams, since the gravitational masses of both are doubled, this would quadruple the force of attraction again without modifying each beam's momentum, making the Newtonian prediction four times that compared to using mass from the rest energy equation. Both of these new predictions are what is shown to actually happen.


Understandably, if this were a good and valid idea, it would have been used or realized a long time ago. My question is centred around understanding why the rest mass equation must be used; I am not trying to say what has been done is wrong, just trying to understand why it makes sense.



Answer



For a particle of fixed mass $m$ moving in a fixed gravitational potential $\phi(\vec{r})$ the motion is independent of the mass of the particle. The equations are $$ \vec{F}=-m\nabla\phi $$ and $$ \vec{F} = \frac{d\vec{p}}{dt} = m \frac{d\vec{v}}{dt} $$ It's clear that the $m$'s cancel when combining these equations. So from this point of view it doesn't matter what (non-zero) mass is taken for the photon in the calculation. It sounds like you've read a derivation of photon deflection which assumes the photon mass is $m=E/c^2$, but this assumption isn't necessary.


In your argument you calculate the gravitational force using a mass derived from $E=\frac{1}{2}m v^2$ but then take the momentum to be $p=mv=E/c$. This implies taking the gravitational mass of the photon (the $m$ in the first equation I wrote) to be twice the inertial mass of the photon (the $m$ in the second equation).



Of course, there's nothing to stop you modifying Newton's gravity by assuming this, and it does correct the deflections you mention (at least to first order in $\phi/c^2$, in the higher order terms your results would still disagree with those of general relativity). However, such a choice would violate the equivalence principle, for which there is a lot of experimental evidence (albeit mostly with massive particles). For me, this seems like the biggest reason not to consider your modification.


So, in summary, there is no requirement for the photon rest mass to be taken as $E/c^2$. As long as the inertial and gravitational masses are assumed to be equal the usual Newtonian deflection is found (i.e. half the predition of GR for weak fields). Your argument assumes that the gravitational mass is twice the inertial mass, which doubles the deflection, but violates the equivalence principle.


Update:


What I wrote above is true for the case of deflection in a constant field. For the interaction of two photons travelling in opposite directions the choice of mass is important in the Newtonian model. If both photons are modelled as having mass $m$ then the force between them is proportional to $m^2$ and so their acceleration is proportional to $m$. Therefore a larger choice of $m$ would result in a greater deflection. However, the comment I made about your idea being equivalent to choosing different inertial and gravitational masses applies in this case too.


If the paper you cite shows that the choice of $m=E/c^2$ gives a quarter of the GR prediction for two interacting photons then this is the only choice of mass for which this is true (I can't actually access that paper atm, so I can't check). This choice of Newtonian mass is reasonable since GR implies that the curvature of space depends upon the energy density, rather than the mass density.


Regarding your comment about Newtonian physics already violating the equivalence principle, I think it's important to be precise. If it is assumed that coordinates change between observers with different constant velocities by a Galilean transformation then Newtonian predictions do satisfy the equivalence principle. However, under the Lorentz transformation (which special relativity tells us is the correct one since it conserves the speed of light) Newtonian predictions violate the equivalence principle. This was one of the observations Einstein used to develop the theory of General Relativity.


quantum mechanics - Do electrons have a radius when they behave like a particle?


I know sometimes electrons behave like waves, but it sometimes can be seen as a particle. while it's a particle, does it have a radius? or, a volume? If it doesn't even have a volume, how can we still call it a particle?




kinematics - Do integrals of position make any sense? Do they have an application?



I know that taking the derivative of position with respect to time defines what we call velocity, but I've never heard of physicist going in the opposite direction with position. Is there any application for the integral of position with respect to time?


Maybe with respect to something else?




thermal radiation - Planck's Law in terms of wavelength



I am drawing a blank when it comes to equation transformation. Wikipedia gives two equations for the spectral radiance of black body:



  • First as a function of frequency $\nu$: $$I(\nu, T) = \frac{2 h \nu^3}{c^2}\cdot\frac{1}{e^\frac{h \nu}{k T} - 1}$$

  • Then as a function of wavelength $\lambda$ : $$I'(\lambda, T) = \frac{2hc^2}{\lambda^5}\cdot\frac{1}{e^\frac{h c}{\lambda k T}-1}$$


And I don't see how they get $\lambda^5$ term. I'm assuming that the transformation is just $\nu \rightarrow c/\lambda$, but that gives $$ \frac{2 h \nu^3}{c^2} \Rightarrow \frac{2 hc}{\lambda^3} \neq \frac{2hc^2}{\lambda^5} $$


Similar transformation happens at other parts in the article also. I'm obviously missing something, likely completely trivial.



Answer



Expanding on Ron's comment:


$$I(\nu ,T)d\nu =\frac{2h\nu ^3}{c^2}\frac{d\nu }{e^{\frac{h\nu }{kT}}-1}$$ $$\nu \to \frac{c}{\lambda },\quad d\nu \to c\frac{d\lambda }{\lambda ^2}$$ $$I(\lambda ,T)d\lambda =\frac{2h}{c^2}\left(\frac{c}{\lambda }\right)^3\frac{1}{e^{\frac{hc}{\lambda kT}}-1}c\frac{d\lambda }{\lambda ^2}=\frac{2hc^2}{\lambda ^5}\frac{d\lambda }{e^{\frac{hc}{\lambda kT}}-1}$$



classical mechanics - Moment of a force about a given axis (Torque) - Scalar or vectorial?

I am studying Statics and saw that: The moment of a force about a given axis (or Torque) is defined by the equation: $M_X = (\vec r \times \...