Monday, January 15, 2018

particle physics - Why is boson spin number related to attraction and repulsion?


The accepted answer to this question says



Since the electroweak interaction is mediated by spin 1 bosons, it is the case that "like (charge) repels like and opposites attract".



Another answer comments:




The Higgs is spin - 0 (scalar field) and the graviton is spin - 2; attractive.



From this other question



a force mediated by a spin-0 scalar is always attractive.



So what's going on here? Why does the spin of the boson determine whether the force is universally attractive or follows the opposites-attract-and-like-repels-like pattern?


What would it look like for a spin-3 or spin-4 boson, if such a particle existed?




No comments:

Post a Comment

classical mechanics - Moment of a force about a given axis (Torque) - Scalar or vectorial?

I am studying Statics and saw that: The moment of a force about a given axis (or Torque) is defined by the equation: $M_X = (\vec r \times \...