I was going through the calculation of the free-particle kernel in Feynman and Hibbs (pp 43). The book describes (m2πiℏϵ)∫∞−∞exp(im2ℏϵ[(x2−x1)2+(x1−x0)2])dx1 as a Gaussian integral. And the result of this integration is given as (m2πiℏ⋅2ϵ)1/2exp(im2ℏ⋅2ϵ(x2−x0)2). The only way I could do this integral was treating it as a Gaussian integral over ix1, in which case I get the required solution but with a negative sign upfront. Is this the right way to do it, or is there something very obvious that I am not seeing?
On a related note, problem 3-8 (pp 63) also involves a similar "Gaussian" integral in order to obtain the kernel for the quantum harmonic oscillator. My technique of performing a Gaussian integral over ix goes horribly wrong there and I am not even near the correct answer which should be of the form 1√2πsinϵexp(i2sinϵ[(x20+x22)cosϵ−2x2x2]) after performing the integration, exp(icotϵ2(x20+x22))∫exp(i2sinϵ[2x21cosϵ−2x1(x0+x2)])dx1. Any help will be greatly appreciated.
Answer
The variable ϵ≡ΔtM > 0 in eq. (3.4) is the change in Minkowski time.
In order not to deal with purely oscillatory integrands, Feynman uses a prescription ΔtM⟶ΔtM−i0+ where an infinitesimal negative imaginary part is added to make the integrand exponentially decaying.
In other words, under a Wick rotation ΔtE ≡ iΔtM to Euclidean time, ΔtE should have a positive real part.
Eq. (3.4) in Ref. 1 then follows from the Gaussian integral √m2πℏΔtE21√m2πℏΔtE10∫Rdx1 exp{−m2ℏ[Δx221ΔtE21+Δx210ΔtE10]} = √m2πℏΔtE20exp{−m2ℏΔx220ΔtE20}, where Δxab := xa−xb,Δtab := ta−tb,a,b ∈ {0,1,2}.
The above square root factor is the famous Feynman's fudge factor, which can be understood in the Hamiltonian phase space path integral as arising from a Gaussian momentum integration, cf. e.g. my Phys.SE answer here.
References:
- R.P. Feynman & A.R. Hibbs, Quantum Mechanics and Path Integrals, 1965.
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