Theoretically, from Newton's equation for the force between two bodies if we take two ordinary rings in a distance there will be a force according to the square inverse law of their distance (from their mass center) such as case 1 from the below picture. If i place their mass center so as to coincide (case 2) the Force will be infinite, although they can separate from each other with a small force. What's wrong with that supposition?
Monday, March 9, 2015
newtonian gravity - Newton's Gravitation Force between two bodies
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
classical mechanics - Moment of a force about a given axis (Torque) - Scalar or vectorial?
I am studying Statics and saw that: The moment of a force about a given axis (or Torque) is defined by the equation: $M_X = (\vec r \times \...
-
cosmology - The difference between comoving and proper distances in defining the observable universe"The radius of the observable universe is estimated to be about 46.5 Gly." If I understand correctly, it means the most distant ob...
-
Are C1, C2 and C3 connected in parallel, or C2, C3 in parallel and C1 in series with C23? Btw it appeared as a question in the basic physics...
-
Everyone always talks about the efficiency of their appliances. I was wondering if everything was 100% efficient at heating its surroundings...
No comments:
Post a Comment