I was reading a paper entitled "The Rayleigh—Taylor instability in astrophysical fluids" by Allen & Hughes (1984) that indicates the instability can occur for ρ01<ρ02 which would indicate a negative Atwood number. But how is this possible? Does not the density gradient have to be opposite the direction of the effective gravity? Must not the Atwood number be necessarily positive for a Rayleigh-Taylor instability?
Answer
Your intuition is correct; there's no such thing as a Rayleigh-Taylor instability with a negative Atwood number. That would imply that the density of the upper fluid, ρ01, is less than the density of the lower fluid, ρ02, which is clearly a stable situation with respect to the R-T instability.
So how did ρ01<ρ02 appear in the Allen and Hughes paper? I'm pretty sure it was just a typo. I read through the paper and the only place I saw anything that looked like a negative Atwood number was in section 4.2.2, where there's a sentence: In conclusion, it may be seen that the growth of R—T instabilities saturates for large accelerations, except in the limit ρ01≪ρ02 where the growth remains of the usual form
ω=(gk)1/2
But this sentence refers to an earlier paragraph in the same section that says, "Again, for η ~ 1, compressibility has little effect and ω2≈gk." Since in the authors' notation, the Atwood number η is defined as
η=ρ01−ρ02ρ01+ρ02
it is obvious that η ~ 1 implies ρ01≫ρ02 rather than ρ01≪ρ02.
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