Friday, June 24, 2016

thermodynamics - Joule Thomson Coefficient derivation


In deriving Joule Thomson effect coefficient, why do we take dH=0 and also why do we take H as a function of T and P only and not V? i.e. why do we take (H/T)dT+(H/P)dP=0

and not


(H/T)dT+(H/P)dP+(H/V)dV=0


Any links would also be appreciated.


Thanks.




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