In deriving Joule Thomson effect coefficient, why do we take dH=0 and also why do we take H as a function of T and P only and not V? i.e. why do we take (∂H/∂T)dT+(∂H/∂P)dP=0
and not
(∂H/∂T)dT+(∂H/∂P)dP+(∂H/∂V)dV=0
Any links would also be appreciated.
Thanks.
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