While constructing Lagrangian of QED, we don't add the mass term for photon $\dfrac{1}{2} m^{2}A_{\mu}A^{\mu}$ because gauge invariance does not allow. I want to ask, whether "$\bf{Theoretically}$", is this the only reason we don't have mass term. I know why we need this term to vanish by using the experimental facts, but I feel like I am missing something while constructing the lagrangian for QED. Please stay within the domain of Quantum field theory and Lagrangian formulation while answering (if possible).
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
-
I was solving the sample problems for my school's IQ society and there are some I don't get. Since all I get is a final score, I wan...
-
Are C1, C2 and C3 connected in parallel, or C2, C3 in parallel and C1 in series with C23? Btw it appeared as a question in the basic physics...
-
500 are at my end, 500 are at my start, but at my heart there are only 5. The first letter and the first number make me complete: Some consi...
No comments:
Post a Comment