https://physics.stackexchange.com/a/199976/170242
In this answer (in the link), it is mentioned that "the internal energy of an ideal gas is independent of volume when considered as a function of volume and temperature."
Later, it is also mentioned that (∂U∂X)T=0
for any variable X.
From this, it is easy to conclude that internal energy of an ideal gas is a function of temperature only.
But, can one derive this expression mathematically ?
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