Sunday, March 10, 2019

quantum mechanics - Bloch's theorem



I am studying Bloch's theorem, which can be stated as follows:



The eigenfunctions of the wave equation for a period potential are the product of a plane wave eikr times a modulation function uk(r), which has the periodicity of the lattice. In total: ψk(r)=uk(r)eikr. [Reference: Kittel - Introduction to solid sate physics.]



I have some problems understanding Bloch's theorem in full. Can I view the wavevector k as the actual, physical momentum of the electron, which moves in a periodic potential, i.e., does it define the wavelength via λ=2π/k? And how does this relate to the fact that all wavevectors can be translated back to the first Brouillon zone?



Answer



Here's a simple-minded answer:


Let's just compute the momentum of a particle with a Bloch wave function


x|ˆp|Ψ=i(ddx)uk(x)eikx=i(ikuk(x)eikx+uk(x)eikx)=(puk(x)iuk(x))eikx


where in the last line we defined pk. This pretty clearly shows that the Bloch wave function is not an eigenfunction of the momentum operator. So, while you can always break the wave function down into plane waves eikx, and each component is a momentum eigenstate with momentum p=k, the Bloch functions are not themselves momentum eigenstates. Therefore, k in uk(x)eikx is not the momentum of the Bloch state. Note, however, that if uk(x)=constant so that uk(x)=0, then we get



x|ˆp|Ψ=puk(x)eikx=px |Ψ=x| p|Ψ

or in other words


ˆp|Ψ=p|Ψ.


Please make a separate question for the Brillouin zone thing. I would like to answer this, but it belongs in a separate question.


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