Wednesday, August 19, 2015

The relationship between the energy and amplitude of a wave? Derivation?


From multiple online sources I read that EA2

but when I mentioned this in class, my teacher told me I was wrong and that it was directly proportional to amplitude instead.


As far as I know, every website I stumbled upon concerning this said that is the case. My teacher has a Ph.D and seems pretty experienced, so I don't see why he would make a mistake, are there cases where EA?


I also saw this derivation:


A0F(x)dx=A0kxdx=12kA2



located here, does anyone mind explaining it in a bit more detail? I have a basic understanding of what an integral is but I'm not sure what the poster in the link was saying. I know there is a pretty good explanation here, but it seems way too advanced for me (gave up once I saw partial derivatives, but I see that they're basically the same later on). The first one I linked seems like something I could understand.



Answer



The poster from that link is saying that the work done by the spring (that's Hooke's law there: F=kx) is equal to the potential energy (PE) at maximum displacement, A; this PE comes from the kinetic energy (KE) and is equal to the integral of Hooke's law over the range 0 (minimum displacement) to A (maximum displacement).




Anyway, your professor is wrong. The total energy in a wave comes from the sum of the the changes in potential energy, ΔU=12(Δm)ω2y2,

and in kinetic energy, ΔK=12(Δm)v2
where Δm is the change in mass. If we assume that the density of the wave is uniform, then Δm=μΔx where μ is the linear density. Thus the total energy is E=ΔU+ΔK=12ω2y2μΔx+12v2μΔx
As y=Asin(kxωt) and v=Aωcos(kxωt), then the energy is proportional to the square of the amplitude: Eω2A2


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