This is a question about terminology. To me, it's clear that the nucleus of an atom is still an atom. But a comment by Willie Wong at Is nature symmetric between particles and antiparticles? raises this question. Similarly, arguments go either way at the physics forums question: "is it possible for an atom to have no electrons?" http://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=50333
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In the crystal, infinitesimal translational symmetry breaking makes the phonon, In ferromagnet, time-reversal symmetry breaking makes magnon...
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A "Schrödinger's cat state" is a macroscopic superposition state. Quantum states can interfere in simple experiments (such as ...
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The degeneracy for an $p$-dimensional quantum harmonic oscillator is given by [ 1 ] as $$g(n,p) = \frac{(n+p-1)!}{n!(p-1)!}$$ The $g$ is the...
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