This is a question about terminology. To me, it's clear that the nucleus of an atom is still an atom. But a comment by Willie Wong at Is nature symmetric between particles and antiparticles? raises this question. Similarly, arguments go either way at the physics forums question: "is it possible for an atom to have no electrons?" http://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=50333
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classical mechanics - Moment of a force about a given axis (Torque) - Scalar or vectorial?
I am studying Statics and saw that: The moment of a force about a given axis (or Torque) is defined by the equation: $M_X = (\vec r \times \...
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A charged particle undergoing an acceleration radiates photons. Let's consider a charge in a freely falling frame of reference. In such ...
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You are visiting your old friend Mike at Infinitely's Baking Shop. Just as you arrived, he was taking out a fresh, infinitely long loaf ...
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Are C1, C2 and C3 connected in parallel, or C2, C3 in parallel and C1 in series with C23? Btw it appeared as a question in the basic physics...
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