This is a question about terminology. To me, it's clear that the nucleus of an atom is still an atom. But a comment by Willie Wong at Is nature symmetric between particles and antiparticles? raises this question. Similarly, arguments go either way at the physics forums question: "is it possible for an atom to have no electrons?" http://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=50333
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It is always told as a fact without explaining the reason. Why do two objects get charged by rubbing? Why one object get negative charge and...
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cosmology - The difference between comoving and proper distances in defining the observable universe"The radius of the observable universe is estimated to be about 46.5 Gly." If I understand correctly, it means the most distant ob...
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Are C1, C2 and C3 connected in parallel, or C2, C3 in parallel and C1 in series with C23? Btw it appeared as a question in the basic physics...
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