When I look at the circle of the Dirac cone around the Dirac point of, let's say, Bi2Se3, then the electron winds around and it is true that it goes from momentum −k and spin-up to +k and spin-down. Now how can I use this fact to show that the Berry phase of π arises?
When the electron completes one circle it did go from k to k and from spin-up to spin-up. So basically nothing changed...?
Picture that shows the Dirac cone in the Brillouin zone and the spin on the left hand side:
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