In a text book it was given that the surface charge density of a conductor at a particular region on its surface is inversely proportional to the radius of curvature at that region. I didn't understand it. I'd like to see a proof for that can anyone please post the proof.
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
classical mechanics - Moment of a force about a given axis (Torque) - Scalar or vectorial?
I am studying Statics and saw that: The moment of a force about a given axis (or Torque) is defined by the equation: $M_X = (\vec r \times \...
-
It is always told as a fact without explaining the reason. Why do two objects get charged by rubbing? Why one object get negative charge and...
-
I am studying Statics and saw that: The moment of a force about a given axis (or Torque) is defined by the equation: $M_X = (\vec r \times \...
-
Consider a gun or rifle fired directly upwards. My original question was what speed would be required to escape the Earth. The escape veloci...
No comments:
Post a Comment