The Wikipedia article on heat capacity indicates that there is a relationship between the number of degrees of freedom and the heat capacity. I understand this in terms of the equipartition theorem but how I can't understand how this can be used to explain that heat capacity must go to zero as absolute temperature goes to zero (since here equipartition theorem will not hold). So please can someone intuitively explain this to me?
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
classical mechanics - Moment of a force about a given axis (Torque) - Scalar or vectorial?
I am studying Statics and saw that: The moment of a force about a given axis (or Torque) is defined by the equation: $M_X = (\vec r \times \...
-
I was solving the sample problems for my school's IQ society and there are some I don't get. Since all I get is a final score, I wan...
-
Are C1, C2 and C3 connected in parallel, or C2, C3 in parallel and C1 in series with C23? Btw it appeared as a question in the basic physics...
-
500 are at my end, 500 are at my start, but at my heart there are only 5. The first letter and the first number make me complete: Some consi...
No comments:
Post a Comment