Imagine we take a cuboid with sides a,b and c and throw it like a usual die. Is there a way to determine the probabilities of the different outcomes Pab,Pbc and Pac? With ab, bc, ac I label the three distinct faces of the die (let us not distinguish between the two opposide sides).
I would guess that the probabilities can not be calculated solely by the weights of the different areas (something like Ptryab=ab/(ab+bc+ac)).
I believe this is a complicated physical problem which can in principle depend on a lot of factors like friction of air and the table, the material of the die, etc. However, I would like to simplify it as much as possible and assume we can calculate the probabilities just by knowing the lengths of the different sides.
For a start, let us assume that two sides b=c are equal (that is, we only have two events ab and bb). Now with dimensional analysis we know that the probabilities Pab and Pbb can only be functions of the ratio ρ=a/b. We also have Pab(ρ)+Pbb(ρ)=1 and we know, for example, that (i) Pab(0)=0, (ii) Pab(1)=2/3 and (iii) Pab(ρ→∞)=1.
My question is: is there a way to determine Pab(ρ)?
Bonus: Since I am too lazy to perform the experiment, would there be a way to run this through some 3D rigid-body physics simulation and determine the probabilities by using a huge number of throws (of course this is doomed to fail for extreme values of ρ)?
Remark: Actually, the function Ptry given above fulfills all three properties (i)-(iii). For b=c we have
Ptryab=2ab2ab+b2=2ρ1+2ρ
(the additional factor of 2 comes from the fact, that we have four sides ab instead of two like in the asymmetric die above)
Answer
I think a reasonable first approximation can be made like this: choose an arbitrary orientation for the die, and figure out, if the die were released in that orientation with its lowermost point resting on a surface, which side would it fall on? That can be easily calculated; you just draw a line going straight down from the center of mass, and whichever face it passes through, that's the one that will land down. We can then assume (this is the unjustified approximation) that the orientation of the die before it begins its final tip is uniformly random, so the problem is reduced to finding the proportion of all possible directions which pass through each face. Hopefully it's clear that that is just the solid angle subtended by the face divided by the total solid angle, 4π.
For a cuboid, we can figure out the solid angle of a face by doing an integral,
Ω=∬Sˆr⋅dAr2
as given on MathWorld. Take the face to lie in the plane z=Z (capital letters will be constants) and to have dimensions 2X×2Y. The integral then becomes
Ω=∫Y−Y∫X−X(xˆx+yˆy+Zˆz)⋅ˆz(x2+y2+Z2)3/2dxdy=Z∫Y−Y∫X−X1(x2+y2+Z2)3/2dxdy=4tan−1(XYZ√X2+Y2+Z2)
This gets divided by 4π to produce the probability. Translating into your notation, and multiplying by 2 to take into account the two opposite sides under one probability, this becomes
Pab=2πtan−1(abc√a2+b2+c2)
Pbc and Pca are the same under the appropriate permutation of the labels.
Some sanity checks show that this is at least a reasonable candidate solution:
- Pab is symmetric in a and b
- Pab is directly related to a and b and inversely related to c
- Pab→1 as a,b→∞ or c→0
- Pab→0 as a,b→0 or c→∞
For three equal sides,
Paa=2πtan−1(a√3a2)=2πtan−11√3=13
For two equal sides, b=c, as in your simplified example:
Pab=2πtan−1(abb√a2+2b2)=2πtan−1(ρ√ρ2+2)Pbb=2πtan−1(b2a√a2+2b2)=2πtan−1(1ρ√ρ2+2)
- Pab(0)=0 as expected
- Pab(1)=2πtan−11√3=2ππ6=13 for one particular pair of opposite sides, as expected
- Pab(∞)=2πtan−10=2ππ2=1, as expected
Pab+Pbc+Pca=1 can be shown using the identity
tan−1x+tan−1y=tan−1x+y1−xy
from which follows
tan−1x+tan−1y+tan−1z=tan−1(x+y)/(1−xy)+z1−z(x+y)/(1−xy)=tan−1(x+y+z−xyz)/(1−xy)(1−xy−zx−zy)/(1−xy)=tan−1x+y+z−xyz1−xy−zx−zy
The relevant products are
x+y+z=abc√a2+b2+c2+bca√a2+b2+c2+cab√a2+b2+c2=(ab)2+(bc)2+(ca)2abc√a2+b2+c2xy=abc√a2+b2+c2bca√a2+b2+c2=b2a2+b2+c2and cyclic permutations, soxy+yz+zx=1xyz=abc(a2+b2+c2)3/2x+y+z−xyz=[(ab)2+(bc)2+(ca)2](a2+b2+c2)−(abc)2abc(a2+b2+c2)3/2≠0
so you wind up with tan−1x+y+z−xyz0=π2, giving ∑P=1.
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