I read a paper on solving Schrodinger equation with central potential, and I wonder how the author get the equation(2) below. Full text.
In Griffiths's book, it reads
$$-\frac{1}{2}D^2\phi+\left(V+\frac{1}{2}\frac{l(l+1)}{r^2}\right)\phi=E\phi$$
They are quite different. Can anyone explain how to deduce equation(2)?
Answer
The difference is due to the fact that solid harmonics are not spherical harmonic. So, equation (2) and the more conventional equation from Griffith are equations for different functions $\phi$. The Schrodinger eq. (1)
$$-\frac{1}{2r^2}\frac{\partial}{\partial r} \left( r^2\frac{\partial}{\partial r}\psi\right) + \frac{\hat{L}^2}{2r^2}\psi + V\psi ~=~ E\psi $$
is indeed turned by substitution
$$ \psi ~=~ R(r) Y_{\ell m}(\theta,\varphi)~=~ \phi(r) r^{\ell} Y_{\ell m}(\theta,\varphi) $$ to equation (2) if you do the math correctly. Note $r^{\ell}$ here: it is what differs solid harmonics from spherical harmonics. On the other hand, Griffith's function $\phi(r)$ is defined as $rR(r)$.
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