The independent boson model consists of the following Hamiltonian: Hs=Eσz
The model is exactly solvable by introducing a state-dependent displacement:
U=exp[σz∑k(g∗kb†k−gkbk)],
Note that there exists an equivalence between a spin-1/2 particle and a single fermionic mode, i.e. we can rewrite the above Hamiltonian by replacing σz→c†c, where {c,c†}=1 are fermionic ladder operators. The resulting model is equivalent up to a shift of the equilibrium position of the oscillators.
However, when c is instead taken to be bosonic, the solution fails. The fermionic/spin solution relies on the fact that (c†c)2=c†c, which ultimately stems from the fact that the fermionic Hilbert space has 2 states. In contrast, the Hilbert space of a bosonic mode is infinite-dimensional.
Is the independent boson model always exactly solvable so long as the Hilbert space of the impurity is finite-dimensional?
I mean precisely the following: imagine replacing σz with Sz, the z projection of a spin with total angular momentum S>1/2. Is the model exactly solvable? Constructive answers which describe the form of the solution would be great, or any references to where this problem has already been solved in the literature.
Answer
I'm not completely sure why you think that the bosonic mode fails, but it seems to me that the answer is definitely yes. The system is solvable in both the finite-dimensional and the bosonic case; the problem with the bosonic case is that the solution is ugly, because the hamiltonian is ugly.
Take a hamiltonian of the form H=E0S+S∑k(gkbk+g∗b†k)+∑kωkb†kbk,
It is now easy to find eigenstates of this form - all you need is to take |ϕ⟩ as a product of eigenstates of each displaced number operator (bk+δk)†(bk+δk). This is easy to write as |ϕ⟩=⨂kD(−δk)|nk⟩=exp(∑k(δ∗kbk−δkbk))|{nk}⟩=exp(s∑kg∗kbk−gkbkωk)|{nk}⟩.
In some ways, you're sort of done. This is enough to provide a basis of eigenstates of H, and there is definitely no problem if S is finite-dimensional. On the other hand, I imagine you still want a canonical-transformation formulation of this. To do that, you can write |ψ⟩=exp(S∑kg∗kbk−gkbkωk)|s⟩|{nk}⟩=U|s⟩|{nk}⟩,
That said, the bosonic case S=a†a is obviously problematic, because the transformed hamiltonian in (1) is unbounded from below. as soon as you have one nonzero gk. However, I think this is a problem with H itself rather than the transformation.
To see this, consider the case where a single gk is nonzero, so H=ωsa†a+(gb+g∗b†)a†a+ωbb†b.
So: the problem with a boson-boson interaction of this form is not that the hamiltonian is not diagonalizable (which it patently is), but that the interaction is unphysical.
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