If the surface object B is placed on is frictionless, on applying a force F on object A, friction will act on object A opposite to the direction of the force applied (opposite to the direction of its tendency of slipping relative to B/ actual slipping relative to B) and will act on object B in the direction of the force applied (opposite to the direction of its tendency of slipping relative to A/ actual slipping relative to A.)
The surface B is on being frictionless can only be an ideal situation, but in this case, friction opposes object A’s tendency of motion towards the right while it enables B’s motion to the right. Is friction enabling relative motion between A and B here?
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