Tuesday, June 5, 2018

Definition respective derivation of angular momentum formula


I am reading An Introduction to Mechanics by Kleppner and Kolenkow (2014). On page 241 is the definition of the angular momentum:



Here is the formal definition of the angular momentum $\vec{L}$ of a particle that has momentum $\vec{p}$ and is at position $\vec{r}$ with respect to a given coordinate system: $$\vec{L}=\vec{r} \times \vec{p}$$



In the book there is no explanation why this formula should be true. From this equation the formulas for torque and moment of inertia are derived.



My question is: Why is the formula above correct? Why isn't the formula for angular momentum something completely different, like $\vec{L}=\sqrt{(\vec{r} \times \vec{p})2\pi M}$? Is the formula for angular momentum just a mere definition and if not, how to derive it? How did people come across that particular formula?




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