Sunday, December 30, 2018

general relativity - Jacobi equation in the book The Large scale structure of space-time



On pp. 79, it is obvious that equation (4.2) DsZa=Va; bZb

holds, where Z is the deviation vector and V is the unit tangent vector along the timelike curves.


The author then project the deviation vector to Za=habZb, where hab=gab+VaVb (the author used δab, but I think it should be the metric?) is the tensor which projects a vector into its component in the subspace orthogonal to V.


My question is on equation (4.3): Ds(Za)=Va; bZb

In components it should be hac(hcdZd); bVb=Va; bhbcZc
Using equation (4.2), which in component Za; bVb=Va; bZb
I just can make equation (4.3) equal on both side. Since the equation looks so simple, the derivation should be rather intuitive?


Also, there is no derivation to equation (4.4). It looks quite formidable though. Any hint on the derivation would be appreciated. There are a lot of detail derivation on geodesic deviation, but they did not project the deviation vector to the orthogonal ones though.


Thanks!



Answer



We first show that h=g+VV is a projection operator into the subspace HpM orthogonal to VTpM.


Idempotence (hh=h). A simple calculation gives: habhbc=(δab+VaVb)(δbc+VbVc)=δabδbc+VaVbδbc+δabVbVc+VaVbVbVc=δac+VaVc+VaVcVaVc=hac.

Identity on orthogonal subspace (h|HpM=idHpM). This is also not hard. Let XHpM, then habXb=δabXb+VaVbXb=δabXb=Xa.
We note also that h(V)=0, since habVb=δabVb+VaVbVb=VaVa=0


So h is a proper projection operator.


We will now explain the derivation of Eq. (4.3), since there is a little trick involved. The object DsZa

is understood as follows: project ZaTpM into HpM and take the covariant derivative of the result along the integral curves of V. Then project this into HpM again. Thus DsZa=habDs(hbcZc)
Now we begin a long calculation: habDs(hbcZc)=habDhbcsZc+habhbcDZcs=habZcDs(δbc+VbVc)+hacVc;bZb
Note that δab is covariantly constant (page 32), so we have hacVc;bZb+habZcVdVb;dVc+habZcVbVc;dVd
and the last term vanishes because h(V)=0.



Note that since VaVa=1, we have Va;bVa=0. This implies Va;bZbHpM. Thus Va;bZb=habVb;cZc, and one can show this equals (1) by simply expanding the definitions.


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