I'm trying to derive the Lagrangian for a non-relativistic charged particle under the influence of a magnetic potential.
I'm assuming that F=−grad(V) and so by the Lorentz force we have −grad(V)=qv×(curl(A)) and thus I would somehow like to "solve" for V in order to plug it into the Lagrangian L≡T−V.
However, doing so, I arrive at −∂jV=q∑ivi(∂jAi−∂iAj) and I don't see an obvious way to get from here to V=−qc∑iAivi.
Answer
Hint to the question (v2): For a velocity-dependent force F (such as e.g. the Lorentz force), the relationship between force F and potential U is
F = ddt∂U∂v−∂U∂r.
See e.g. Goldstein, Classical Mechanics, Chapter 1. See also e.g. this and this Phys.SE posts.
No comments:
Post a Comment