In a Phys.SE question titled How are classical optics phenomena explained in QED (Snell's law)? Marek talked about the probability amplitude for photons of a given path. He said that it was $\exp(iKL)$, and that "...this is very simplified picture but I don't want to get too technical so..."
I want to know how it arises, even if it is technical. I find it very strange. If we compare it to the case of a particle obeying the Schrodinger equation, we have $\exp(iS/h)$ where $S$ is the action of a given path. $S$ is what we want to minimize(in the classical limit). In this case the path is a space-time path.
But in the other case, of the photon, where $L$ is that we have to minimize(in the classical limit or if you want in the geometrical optics limit) the paths are only in space, and I can't find any temporal dependence.
when I check any book about QED, I can read about the photon propagator (about space-time paths) but I never have found out about the expression $\exp(iKL)$.
In general terms I find hard to relate what Feynman teaches in his book with what I have read in the "formal QED books" like Sokolov, Landau, Feynman or Greiner.
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