Monday, August 13, 2018

Huge confusion with Fermions and Bosons and how they relate to total spin of atom


I am supremely confused when something has spin or when it does not. For example, atomic Hydrogen has 4 fermions, three quarks to make a proton, and 1 electron. There is an even number of fermions, and each fermion has a 1/2 spin. Since there are an even number of fermions, the total spin value is an integer. This spin number is the "intrinsic" spin number that cannot be changed, but its orientation "up" or "down" can be changed.


For atomic Hydrogen, it is a Boson because it has integer spin, however it also has a single electron. I read on physics forums, http://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=69992, that the spin of atom comes from the electrons and not its nucleus. I also read on here, How to find that a molecule has zero spin?, that the spin of atomic Hydrogen is 1/2! The answer says atomic Hydrogen has spin 1/2 because it ignores the nuclear spin.


This is one thing that is confusing me. Shouldn't atomic Hydrogen have an integer spin because of the nuclear component? So does atomic Hydrogen have spin and is affected by a magnetic field? Nuclear spins are affected by magnetic fields, but they aren't as affected as electrons according to the discussion on physics forums.



Why do we ignore nuclear spin sometimes? Also, can someone help me out here with all the possibilities?


Is there a Boson with an half integer spin value? (Surely, there must not be) However atomic Hydrogen is one of those cases! (It seems...) (Why don't we cancel out the nuclear spin with the electron spin?)


Say we have another atom that is a Boson, It has unpaired electrons in different orbitals, so what determines whether or not electrons fill in orbitals as spin up or down? Does spin down nuclear spin cancel out a electron up spin?




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