In many theories of CMT, we assume the nature of quasi-particles (without giving proper justifications). For example, we assume nature of quasi-particles to be fermionic in case of a interacting fermion system we began with and impose anti-commutation relations accordingly. Like in BCS theory, while using the Bogoliubov-Valatin transformation to diagonalize the Hamiltonian, we assume that the new operators are also fermionic in nature. Please explain more on this step and how is it justified.
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classical mechanics - Moment of a force about a given axis (Torque) - Scalar or vectorial?
I am studying Statics and saw that: The moment of a force about a given axis (or Torque) is defined by the equation: $M_X = (\vec r \times \...
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It is always told as a fact without explaining the reason. Why do two objects get charged by rubbing? Why one object get negative charge and...
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I am studying Statics and saw that: The moment of a force about a given axis (or Torque) is defined by the equation: $M_X = (\vec r \times \...
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Does the frequency of light change when it travels across an interface between two media? What happens to the light wavelength and the light...
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