I came across the following problem in Fluid Mechanics. We are asked to find the velocity in 3.
The pipe diameter from 2 to 3 is constant. I calculated the velocity in 2 using √2g×50 and then from the continuity equation I deduced that the velocity in 3 had to be equal to the velocity in 2 (same diameter implies same cross sectional area, plus water is incompressible).
However the textbook solution is different. They arrive to the following form of the ideal Bernoulli equation:
p1+ρg350=p3+12ρv23
They then assume p1=p3 and find v3=√2g×350, a very different value. By my previous reasoning, it seems to me that this would violate the continuity equation. I also do not understand the assumption that p1=p3, since point 3 is inside the pipe. Is the text book right? If so, what is the flaw with my reasoning regarding the continuity equation?
Answer
In this problem, the two points that are used in the application of the Bernoulli equation are points 1 and 3. As @V.F. correctly points out, the pressures at points 1 and 3 are both atmospheric, so these pressures cancel. The fluid velocity at point 1 is essentially zero, and the elevation z at point 1 is 350 m above the datum, situated at point 3.
For point 3, the elevation z is 0, and the velocity is v3. This all leads to the equation presented in the OP. And, of course, the continuity equation is not violated, since v2=v3.
Of course, the velocity at point 2 is not equal to √2g×50 because the pressure at point 2 is not equal to the pressure at point
Before completing this solution, it is of interest to check the pressure at point 2 to ascertain whether the fluid is cavitating. Applying Bernoulli to points 2 and 3, we have: p2+ρg(300)+12ρv22=p3+12ρv23
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