Newton's famous Inverse Square Law says that in n=3 dimension of space, force is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between a source and a target.
I understand that for higher dimensions, this can be generalized as thus:
F∝1/rn−1
Where n is the dimension of the space.
Why is this so? Is there a rigorous derivation of this from a deep fundamental theory? Or is there a heuristic argument why this is so?
Answer
You can get this more "intuitively" (idiosyncratically): the flux of this force in closed surface is equal to the quantity of source inside (is a Gauss's Law). This source could be a mass or a charge. The physical picture is: the pressure applied in a closed surface by the field-force is proportional to the quantity of source inside.
You can get the force-field produced by a point source with suitable choices of surface (a sphere concentric with the source). Then for any dimension you can see that your field obey the 1rd−1 because the area of this surface (d-sphere, S2) grow with rd−1 (for d>2).
Yes, exist a more "rigorous" (Standard) derivation. Actually we need to check first that this law imply a potential that obey the Laplace's equation: ∇2V(x)=0. Any point source of this force will produce a potential that is a Green's function of ∇2 for suitable boundary condition (V=0 at ∞).
For three dimensions, the Green's function is 1r, this imply 1r2 for the force. For d>2, the Green's function is 1rd−2 and imply a force that is 1rd−1. For d=2 is a logarithm and for d=1 is linear with r.
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