It is often Stated that Bell's Theorem is equivalent to the statement: No theory of Local Hidden Variables can reproduce all of the predictions of quantum mechanics. I see nowhere in Bell's Theorem the assumption of hidden variables. As far as I can tell, there is one assumption: locality, which is shown to conflict with quantum mechanics. If I am wrong on this, could someone demonstrate exactly how Bell failed to demonstrate that quantum mechanics is non-local by showing how the assumption of hidden variables is used in his theorem? To me -- and by the way Bell -- the problem is locality.
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
classical mechanics - Moment of a force about a given axis (Torque) - Scalar or vectorial?
I am studying Statics and saw that: The moment of a force about a given axis (or Torque) is defined by the equation: $M_X = (\vec r \times \...
-
Are C1, C2 and C3 connected in parallel, or C2, C3 in parallel and C1 in series with C23? Btw it appeared as a question in the basic physics...
-
I have read the radiation chapter, where I have been introduced with the terms emissivity and absorptivity. emissivity tells about the abili...
-
Since the charged pions decay into two particles, a muon and a muon neutrino Fractional electric Charge disappeared, why? The decay proceeds...
No comments:
Post a Comment