Tuesday, December 29, 2015

special relativity - Galilean spacetime interval?


Does it make sense to refer to a single Galilean Invariant spacetime interval?


ds2=dt2+dr2


Or is the proper approach to describe separate invariant interval for space (3D Euclidean distance) and time?


This may be a trivial distinction but I suspect the answer to the opening question is no for if one is rigorous and considers Galilean transformation one of three possible versions of the general Lorentz transformation where k=0 (c=1k2=). My understanding is that the real counterpart to non-Euclidean Minkowski space (k=1c2<0) in this construct is not classical Galilean spacetime but a 4D Euclidean space (k>0) which is not consistent with physical reality.


Any insights, corrections would be greatly appreciated.



Answer



The Galilean spacetime is a tuple (R4,tab,hab,) where tab (temporal metric) and hab (spatial metric) are tensor fields and is the coordinate derivative operator specifying the geodesic trajectories.


A single metric does not work, because the speed of light is infinite. If you consider:



dτ2=dt2±(drc)2


the spatial part on the right vanishes for c. Therefore time and space shoulld be treated separately with the temporal metric:


tab=(dat)(dbt)


and the spatial metric:


hab=(x)a(x)b+(y)a(y)b+(z)a(z)b


that translate to


t=t dr2=dr2


While the space of Galilean 4-coordinates is not a Euclidean space, the space of Galilean velocities is a Euclidean space. Differentiating the Galilean transformation (for simplicity in two dimensions):


t=t x=xvt


we obtain dt=dt and therefore



dxdt=dxdtv


If vR=dxdt is the velocity of a body as observed from the frame R and vR=dxdt is the velocity of the body as observed from the frame R, then the result reveals the Euclidean symmetry


vR=vR+vRR


Galilean Transformation


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