Does it make sense to refer to a single Galilean Invariant spacetime interval?
ds2=dt2+dr2
Or is the proper approach to describe separate invariant interval for space (3D Euclidean distance) and time?
This may be a trivial distinction but I suspect the answer to the opening question is no for if one is rigorous and considers Galilean transformation one of three possible versions of the general Lorentz transformation where k=0 (c=−1k2=∞). My understanding is that the real counterpart to non-Euclidean Minkowski space (k=−1c2<0) in this construct is not classical Galilean spacetime but a 4D Euclidean space (k>0) which is not consistent with physical reality.
Any insights, corrections would be greatly appreciated.
Answer
The Galilean spacetime is a tuple (R4,tab,hab,∇) where tab (temporal metric) and hab (spatial metric) are tensor fields and ∇ is the coordinate derivative operator specifying the geodesic trajectories.
A single metric does not work, because the speed of light is infinite. If you consider:
dτ2=dt2±(drc)2
the spatial part on the right vanishes for c→∞. Therefore time and space shoulld be treated separately with the temporal metric:
tab=(dat)(dbt)
and the spatial metric:
hab=(∂∂x)a(∂∂x)b+(∂∂y)a(∂∂y)b+(∂∂z)a(∂∂z)b
that translate to
t′=t dr′2=dr2
While the space of Galilean 4-coordinates is not a Euclidean space, the space of Galilean velocities is a Euclidean space. Differentiating the Galilean transformation (for simplicity in two dimensions):
t′=t x′=x−vt
we obtain dt′=dt and therefore
dx′dt′=dxdt−v
If vR=dxdt is the velocity of a body as observed from the frame R and vR′=dx′dt′ is the velocity of the body as observed from the frame R′, then the result reveals the Euclidean symmetry
vR=vR′+vR′R
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