One statement I've heard many times is that QFT is "defined" by the lattice, or that the "only" definition of QFT is on the lattice (when such definition exists, e.g in pure Yang-Mills theory). I've heard that from many people I respect, but I have my doubts. Specifically - the lattice is an algorithmic definition of those quantities that can be calculated in Euclidean spacetime. As I said in my answer to this question, this is a proper subset of all physical quantities you may be interested in calculating in general, and many physical situations do not have Euclidean formulation. Is there some response to this objection I am missing, or am I being naive somehow?
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classical mechanics - Moment of a force about a given axis (Torque) - Scalar or vectorial?
I am studying Statics and saw that: The moment of a force about a given axis (or Torque) is defined by the equation: $M_X = (\vec r \times \...
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In the crystal, infinitesimal translational symmetry breaking makes the phonon, In ferromagnet, time-reversal symmetry breaking makes magnon...
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A "Schrödinger's cat state" is a macroscopic superposition state. Quantum states can interfere in simple experiments (such as ...
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The degeneracy for an $p$-dimensional quantum harmonic oscillator is given by [ 1 ] as $$g(n,p) = \frac{(n+p-1)!}{n!(p-1)!}$$ The $g$ is the...
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