Suppose you have an object with zero for the value of all the derivatives of position. In order to get the object moving you would need to increase the value of the velocity from zero to some finite value. A change is velocity is acceleration, so the value of the acceleration would have to increase from zero to some value. You would also need to increase the jerk from zero to some value to have a change in acceleration. Is there an infinite series of higher derivatives of position for this to work? Or am I missing something?
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
classical mechanics - Moment of a force about a given axis (Torque) - Scalar or vectorial?
I am studying Statics and saw that: The moment of a force about a given axis (or Torque) is defined by the equation: $M_X = (\vec r \times \...
-
It is always told as a fact without explaining the reason. Why do two objects get charged by rubbing? Why one object get negative charge and...
-
I am studying Statics and saw that: The moment of a force about a given axis (or Torque) is defined by the equation: $M_X = (\vec r \times \...
-
Consider a gun or rifle fired directly upwards. My original question was what speed would be required to escape the Earth. The escape veloci...
No comments:
Post a Comment