Sunday, February 22, 2015

homework and exercises - Why is vecEtextVacuum=epsilonrcdotvecEtextDielectric?


Basically, I'm asking why the electric field in a vacuum (or the applied electric field) is related to the electric field in a dielectric by the relative permittivity ϵr.


For context I'll provide the following question with a known solution:



To estimate the effective separation, d, in an induced atomic dipole we assume that only electrons in the outer shell of the atom are displaced. Sulphur atoms have 4 electrons in their outer shells. Sulphur has 3.8×1028 atoms per meter cubed and a relative permittivity ϵr=4.0.


Estimate the value of d when an external field of 1kVm1 is applied to a block of sulphur.





The solution to this is (with more details added):


P=χeϵ0EDielectric=4Nqd

Now since EDielectric=EAppliedϵr
Therefore 4Nqd=(ϵr1)ϵrϵ0EApplied
Since ϵr=1+χe



Solving equation (1) for d and substituting ϵr=4.0

EApplied=103Vm1
q=elementary charge=e=1.6×1019C
N=Number density of sulphur=1.38×1028m3


gives


d=414ϵ0×103×14×3.8×1028×1.6×10192.7×1019m




I understand everything about this solution apart from the fact why the formula boxed in red holds.


The author simply stated this fact without justification. I would like to know why the electric field for the Dielectric is the applied Electric field reduced by a factor of ϵr.


Why not EDielectric=EApplied3ϵr

or why is it even divided by ϵr in the first place?


This may seem a futile and obvious question to some of you but I have just started learning about electromagnetic fields in matter (instead of just in vacuums) so this is far from trivial to me.


Could anyone please provide me some insight/intuition as to why EDielectric=EAppliedϵr?




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