Basically, I'm asking why the electric field in a vacuum (or the applied electric field) is related to the electric field in a dielectric by the relative permittivity ϵr.
For context I'll provide the following question with a known solution:
To estimate the effective separation, →d, in an induced atomic dipole we assume that only electrons in the outer shell of the atom are displaced. Sulphur atoms have 4 electrons in their outer shells. Sulphur has 3.8×1028 atoms per meter cubed and a relative permittivity ϵr=4.0.
Estimate the value of d when an external field of 1kVm−1 is applied to a block of sulphur.
The solution to this is (with more details added):
→P=χeϵ0→EDielectric=4N⋅q→d
Solving equation (1) for →d and substituting ϵr=4.0
gives
→d=4−14ϵ0×103×14×3.8×1028×1.6×10−19≈2.7×10−19m
I understand everything about this solution apart from the fact why the formula boxed in red holds.
The author simply stated this fact without justification. I would like to know why the electric field for the Dielectric is the applied Electric field reduced by a factor of ϵr.
Why not →EDielectric=→EApplied3ϵr
This may seem a futile and obvious question to some of you but I have just started learning about electromagnetic fields in matter (instead of just in vacuums) so this is far from trivial to me.
Could anyone please provide me some insight/intuition as to why →EDielectric=→EAppliedϵr?
No comments:
Post a Comment