In the derivation of the Boltzmann equation (link to Wikipedia) for a collisionless gas it is assumed that: f(→r+→pmΔt, →p+→FΔt, t+Δt)=f(→r,→p,t)
What is the reasoning for this expression.
In the derivation of the Boltzmann equation (link to Wikipedia) for a collisionless gas it is assumed that: f(→r+→pmΔt, →p+→FΔt, t+Δt)=f(→r,→p,t)
What is the reasoning for this expression.
I am studying Statics and saw that: The moment of a force about a given axis (or Torque) is defined by the equation: $M_X = (\vec r \times \...
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