Will wave function collapse without measurement?
Since all matters are described by wave functions, then in principle, I should be able to describe wave function collapse by Schrodinger's equation. (I don't know how exactly though)
But then here comes a counter question I would like to ask here:
Given all matters are described by wave functions, and now we take the observer who measures into a new system without changing anything; however, considering:
1.) there is a wavefunction collapse. Such things should not disappear simply by picking a new imaginary "lines of system".
2.) But there is no one measuring outside our new system. (in other words, assuming the former action of measurement is simply some interaction, time evolution of the "over all" wavefunction)
So my question is Will wave function collapse without measurement?
I suppose this question somehow runs down to asking what exactly measurement is. but I am giving it a try to see if this question can be answered with or without exact meaning of measurement.
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