In this paper http://arxiv.org/abs/hep-th/9506035 equation (3.11) was written as: ∂L∂u∂L∂v=−1
The author then said p.9 that "approximate solutions to equation (3.11) can be obtained by a power series expansion. It is convenient to define new variables x and y by:"
x=u+v and y=u−v
Then he said equation (3.11) becomes (∂L∂x)2−(∂L∂y)2=−1
How come? I didn't understand his argument.
Answer
This is just the chain rule: ∂L∂u=∂L∂x∂x∂u+∂L∂y∂y∂u. And similar thing for ∂L∂v. We have the derivative of x and y with respect to u and v.
No comments:
Post a Comment