Friday, September 28, 2018

general relativity - Why is GR renormalizable to one loop?



I have read in a few places that GR is renormalizable at one loop. (hep-th/9809169 for example, second sentence, although they don't seem to develop this point at all). Is this do to some hidden symmetry in the theory? Naively we need new counter terms at all orders, even one loop, in perturbation theory, right?




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classical mechanics - Moment of a force about a given axis (Torque) - Scalar or vectorial?

I am studying Statics and saw that: The moment of a force about a given axis (or Torque) is defined by the equation: $M_X = (\vec r \times \...