I have read in a few places that GR is renormalizable at one loop. (hep-th/9809169 for example, second sentence, although they don't seem to develop this point at all). Is this do to some hidden symmetry in the theory? Naively we need new counter terms at all orders, even one loop, in perturbation theory, right?
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classical mechanics - Moment of a force about a given axis (Torque) - Scalar or vectorial?
I am studying Statics and saw that: The moment of a force about a given axis (or Torque) is defined by the equation: $M_X = (\vec r \times \...
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Consider a compound pendulum pivoted about a fixed horizontal axis, illustrated by the force diagram on the right: # Okay, I can't figur...
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In the crystal, infinitesimal translational symmetry breaking makes the phonon, In ferromagnet, time-reversal symmetry breaking makes magnon...
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I was solving the sample problems for my school's IQ society and there are some I don't get. Since all I get is a final score, I wan...
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