Inspired by this recent question, I would like to understand from a more general and mathematical perspective why closed orbits are only found for the Kepler (V(r)∼1/r) or harmonic (V(r)∼r2) potential problems, as follows from Bertrand's theorem.
There are two aspects that make these problems special, which I suspect may be related to the closed-orbit property. First, both problems are superintegrable. This property sits intuitively well with the idea that phase-space orbits should close "as quickly as possible", thus implying that real-space orbits close after a single revolution. Second, each problem possesses an additional "unexpected" conserved quantity, due to a larger symmetry of the problem than the obvious O(3). For the Kepler problem, this is the Runge-Lenz vector, related to the O(4) symmetry of the Hamiltonian. Meanwhile, the harmonic oscillator Hamiltonian conserves the Fradkin tensor: Fij=pipjmω2+mω2qiqj,
These considerations motivate the following question:
What specific physical/mathematical feature(s) do these two problems share that gives them the property of closed orbits? Does this feature bear relevance to the quantum counterpart?
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