Saturday, August 3, 2019

electromagnetism - Coulomb's Law: why is $k = dfrac{1}{4piepsilon_0}$



This was supposed to be a long question but something went wrong and everything I typed was lost. Here goes.




  1. Why is $k = \dfrac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}$ in Coulomb's law?





  2. Is this an experimental fact?




  3. If not, what is the significance of this definition?






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