Is it true that the field strength Fμν in a non-Abelian gauge theory with gauge group G vanishes if, and only if, the gauge field Aμ is a pure gauge?
I can show one implication.
If Aμ=igU∂μU† where U∈G, then the field strength vanishes, but I am struggling with the other implication.
Answer
I) Vanishing field-strength F=0 does not imply that the gauge potential A is pure gauge. It only holds locally. There could be global obstructions. In fact, topological obstructions could happen even if the gauge group G is Abelian.
II) Let us sketched the proof of the local statement in a sufficiently small neighborhood Ω⊆M of a point x0∈M.
For a point x∈Ω choose a path/curve C from x0 to x.
Define group element via a Wilson line U(x) := Pe∫CA, where P denotes path ordering.
Next use the non-Abelian Stokes' theorem to argue that this definition (1) does not depend on the curve C, because F=0.
Finally, use the group-valued section (1) to gauge transform the gauge potential A to be zero.
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