Sunday, November 24, 2019

Does the contact area affect friction forces?


I recall studying a law of friction some years ago, in engineering school. All I remember is that when first approximation was taken, the popular $f=k \times N$ was derived.


What could that be? Or if this does not exist, what is the proof that contact area does not affect friction force?


EDIT:
So, the book is about designing a friction clutch. This device consists of a number z of disc pair, one connected to the input shaft and the other disc from the pair connected to the output shaft.


If I understand the formula and meanings of the variables correctly, the maximum torque, that the device cn transmit is proportional to $F \times z$. F is the force, pushing the disc package together.


Does this change anything?




No comments:

Post a Comment

classical mechanics - Moment of a force about a given axis (Torque) - Scalar or vectorial?

I am studying Statics and saw that: The moment of a force about a given axis (or Torque) is defined by the equation: $M_X = (\vec r \times \...