Would anyone be able to explain the difference, technically, between wave function notation for quantum systems e.g. ψ=ψ(x) and Dirac bra-ket vector notation?
How do you get from one to the other formally?
When you express a state in bra ket notation as a vector (a,b) for instance do we have to be referring to a basis of eigenvectors for an observable?
Furthermore, consider if we had a unitary function U how would we express ⟨Uψ∣ in terms of ⟨ψ∣? As the bra of psi is an element of the duel Hilbert space, which is a function that takes the ket of psi to the inner product, how would we remove the unitary operator?
Note, this is not a homework question, i'm just trying to improve my formal understanding of the notation I've been using, as this has been skirted over quite substantially.
EDIT: Got the last question I asked ⟨Uψ∣ϕ⟩=⟨ψ∣¯UTϕ⟩
Answer
Here's how you get from one to the other. Let me take the case of a particle moving in one dimension.
In this case, we assume that there exist vectors |x⟩ which form a "dirac-normalized" basis (the position basis) for the Hilbert space in the sense that their inner products satisfy ⟨x|x′⟩=δ(x−x′)
Next, for each |ψ⟩ in the Hilbert space, we define the position basis wavefunction ψ corresponding to the state |ψ⟩ as ψ(x)=⟨x|ψ⟩
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