Tuesday, July 17, 2018

quantum mechanics - Wave function and Dirac bra-ket notation


Would anyone be able to explain the difference, technically, between wave function notation for quantum systems e.g. ψ=ψ(x) and Dirac bra-ket vector notation?


How do you get from one to the other formally?


When you express a state in bra ket notation as a vector (a,b) for instance do we have to be referring to a basis of eigenvectors for an observable?


Furthermore, consider if we had a unitary function U how would we express Uψ in terms of ψ? As the bra of psi is an element of the duel Hilbert space, which is a function that takes the ket of psi to the inner product, how would we remove the unitary operator?


Note, this is not a homework question, i'm just trying to improve my formal understanding of the notation I've been using, as this has been skirted over quite substantially.


EDIT: Got the last question I asked Uψϕ=ψ¯UTϕ

ϕHUψ∣=ψ¯UT.




Answer



Here's how you get from one to the other. Let me take the case of a particle moving in one dimension.


In this case, we assume that there exist vectors |x which form a "dirac-normalized" basis (the position basis) for the Hilbert space in the sense that their inner products satisfy x|x=δ(xx)

Note, as an aside, that these vectors are not normalizable in the standard sense, and therefore they do not strictly speaking belong to the Hilbert space.


Next, for each |ψ in the Hilbert space, we define the position basis wavefunction ψ corresponding to the state |ψ as ψ(x)=x|ψ

So really, the value ψ(x) of the position basis wavefunction ψ at a point x can simply be thought of as the basis component of |ψ in the direction of |x just as in the finite-dimensional case where one can find the component of a vector |ψ along a basis vector |ei simply by taking the inner product ei|ψ.


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