Consider two blocks, one on top of the other on a frictionless table, with masses m1 and m2 respectively. There is appreciable friction between the blocks, with coefficients μs and μk for static and kinetic respectively. I'm considering the fairly routine problem of determining the maximum horizontal force F (say, to the right) that can be applied to the top block so that the two blocks accelerate together.
The problem is not hard to solve symbolically. If the two blocks move together, their accelerations are the same, and the top block doesn't move with respect to the bottom block, so only static friction is in play. In a standard coordinate system (with x oriented to the right), the sum of horizontal forces for the top block is
F−Fsf=m1a
and for the bottom block
Fsf=m2a
where Fsf is the force of static friction. Solving for a in these two expressions, and then equating them, gives
F=(m1+m2)Fsfm2
The maximum such force will therefore be achieved when Fsf is maxed out at μsm1g, so
Fmax=m1m2μs(m1+m2)g
I understand this solution, but conceptually I don't have a response to the following nagging question: Fmax is clearly larger than the max static friction force μsm1g (because m1+m2m2>1), so why doesn't the application of a force of magnitude Fmax to the top block cause kinetic friction to take over? This line of reasoning would suggest that applying a force F of magnitude greater than μsm1g would cause the top block to start moving with respect to the bottom block (in which case the blocks no longer accelerate together, as in the above solution). I'm at a loss, conceptually, to say what's wrong here. I suspect it has something to do with being careful about reference frames, but a clear explanation would be much appreciated.
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