I'm working my way through Shankar's Quantum Mechanics (7th printing, and I'm doing it alone, so I apologize if I have core concepts completely wrong).
He has a section on Active and Passive Transformations (which seems to be slightly different from what I know as Active & Passive Transformations, but that would be a different question :) ), and it reads like this:
Suppose we subject all the vectors |V⟩ in a space to a unitary transformation |V⟩→U|V⟩
Under this transformation, the matrix elements of any operator Ω are modified as follows: ⟨V′|Ω|V⟩→⟨UV′|Ω|UV⟩=⟨V′|U†ΩU|V⟩It is clear that the same change would be effected if we left the vectors alone and subjected all operators to the change Ω→U†ΩU
I was trying to wrap my head around this, so I was working through some examples I made up and realized that the formula Ω→U†ΩU only works when U is unitary. In my own examples I worked it out for an arbitrary (viz. non-unitary) change of basis T to be Ω→T−1ΩT
My question is: what part of Shankar's logic above makes use of the fact that U is unitary? It seems like his logic holds fine even without that constraint, but then it gives us a formula that isn't true for non-unitary U.
Answer
By definition the matrix elements of an operator Ω are the expressions ⟨V|Ω|V′⟩, and they transform as DanielSank described. However, their interpretation as actual coefficients of the matrix of Ω in the basis V,V′,… only is correct when the V,V′,… form an orthonormal basis. If A is the matrix of Ω in any basis, and T is the matrix mapping it to a different basis, the matrix of Ω in the new basis becomes T−1AT.
In other words, the inner products ⟨TV|Ω|TV′⟩, called matrix elements, are equal to ⟨V|T†ΩT|V′⟩, but the elements of the matrix of Ω in the basis consisting of the columns of T are equal to ⟨V|T−1ΩT|V′⟩, if the V,V′,… form an orthonormal basis. These are equal only if the TV,TV′,… still form an orthonormal basis, which is equivalent to T being unitary.
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