Friday, November 16, 2018

classical mechanics - Potential of conservative generalized forces


In Gregory's Classical Mechanics there's a proof that when a standard system is conservative, the generalized forces Qj can be written as a potential. But I can't seem to explain some steps in the proof. It goes like this:


Let qA and qB be two points of the configuration space that can be joined by a straight line parallel to the qj-axis (why is this necessary?). Then


qBqAQjdqj=qBqA(iFSiriqj)dqj=iCiFSidr=V(qA)V(qB)=qBqAVqjdqj and since these hold for any two points in configuration space thus described, the integrands are equal.


Some words on notation:


FSi are the specified forces acting on the particle Pi.


CiFSidr means the work done by Fi on a particle moving along any path connecting qA and qB.


The first equality is just using the defintion, as is the last one. So I'm mainly wondering about the justification for the second and third equalities.


Edit: I suppose you can define V:=iVi which explains the third equality. Is this correct?




Answer



The condition that they can be joined by a straight line parallel to the qj axis is necessary because otherwise the first integral, qBqAQjdqj might be ill defined if there is no straight line connecting qA and qB. Someone with more experience than me can probably tell you in which cases the configuration space is a simplex (in which case this is always possible) and when it might not be, thus making this requirement necessary.


In the second step, the author changes the order of integration and summation. Integration theory will tell you when that is possible mathematically, but generally speaking, for most physical situations, this can be done without worrying too much. Further he interprets the qj coordinate as a parametrisation of a special curve connecting qA and qB. For conservative forces FSi, of course the integral is path independent, so we can as well write it as the integral over an arbitrary path.


The third equality is using the fact that, if an integral is path independent, there is a potential and the integral value only depends on the potential difference between beginning and end points. With your suggested definition V=iVi we arrive at the fourth expression, as all the Vi are evaluated at the same points.


Edit:
Follow-Up questions by OP in the comments:



  • "do you mean to say every point on the straight line should be a possible configuration of the system (does this make any sense?)?"
    Yes, this is what I mean. I think it does not make sense to integrate over a line that is physically impossible.

  • "And am I right when I say the only reason the straight line should be parallel to the qj-axis is that only the qj-coordinate varies?"

    Yes, otherwise the parametrisation of the straight line from qA to qB can not be achieved using only the qj coordinate and the integral in the form above is not valid for the curve we want to integrate along.

  • "Is it then in principle enough to consider planar curves spanned by the qj-axis and the points qA and qB?"
    I am not quite sure I understand what you mean here. I think as long as the proof holds for any coordinate system and all of its coordinates, it should be valid in general.


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