It seems to me that Hamiltonian formalism does not suit well for problems involving instantaneous change of momentum, like particle collisions with hard wall or hard sphere gas model. At least I could not apply it straightforwardly to the simplest possible problem of 1D particle hitting a wall:
│/ wall
│/
particle │/
───o────────┼────────────> x
│/
│/
│/
My attempt was quite direct. I took the Hamiltonian to be
$$H = \frac{p^2}{2m} + U(x)$$
with potential $U$ defined as
$$U(x) = \cases{ 0, \; x < 0, \\[.5em] K, \; x > 0, \\[.5em] E, \; x= 0.}$$
where $E$ is the particle energy and $K > E$. Hamiltonian equations should read as
$$\cases{\dot x = \frac{p}{m}, \\[.6em] \dot p = - \frac{d U}{d x}.}$$
It is not hard to integrate the first equation, but my attempts to integrate the second one did not lead to any meaningful result (that's why I do not share them here, it was a complete failure).
So I ask whether it is possible to obtain the solution to the problem by directly integrating Hamiltonian equations in the form above, without relying on general mechanical theorems/principles like energy conservation? Or is such an approach completely unsuitable for the task?
If so, what is the general (and elegant) approach to such systems?
There exist a related question on PSE "Hamiltonian function for classical hard-sphere elastic collision", but the setting is more cumbersome.
Answer
I think I got how to deal with the problem in a straightforward way, without the passage to a limit.
Let the phase space of the initial problem be the half plane
$$\{ \,(q,p) \; | \; q > 0\},$$
the wall is at $q=0$. In this phase space when the particle reaches the point $(0, p)$ it instantaneously teleports to the point $(0, -p)$. Particle trajectories are thus discontinuous.
The trick now is to glue the half plane into a cone, so that particle trajectories will become continuous. At the same time the particles are considered free on the entire trajectory, yielding the Hamiltonian being just a kinetic energy. Sorry for the lack of appropriate drawings, but I hope it is not so hard to imagine. The operation can be formally achieved with a non-canonical change of coordinates to $(r, \varphi)$:
$$\begin{cases} p = 2 r \sin \dfrac{\varphi}{2}, \\[.5em] q = 2 r \cos \dfrac{\varphi}{2}. \end{cases}$$
These are actually polar coordinates in a plane perpendicular to the cone axis. The symplectic form $dp \land dq$ transforms to $2r \, d \varphi \land dr$, or, in other words, the Poisson matrix becomes
$$ \begin{bmatrix} 0 & \dfrac{1}{2r} \\ -\dfrac{1}{2r} & 0 \end{bmatrix} $$
The Hamiltonian (kinetic energy) is given by
$$H = \frac{2}{m} r^2 \sin^2 \frac{\varphi}{2}.$$
All of the above leads to the Hamiltonian flow of
$$X_H = \frac{1}{2m} r \sin \varphi \frac{\partial}{\partial r} - \frac{1 - \cos \varphi}{m} \frac{\partial}{\partial \varphi}$$
and the equations of motion of
$$\begin{cases} \dfrac{d r}{dt} = \dfrac{1}{2m} r \sin \varphi, \\[.5em] \dfrac{d \varphi}{dt} = -\dfrac{1}{m} (1 - \cos \varphi). \end{cases}$$
These are amenable to a relatively simple integration, free of the subtleties of special functions. As result one gets as a solution
$$\begin{gather} \cot \dfrac{\varphi(t)}{2} = C_1+ \dfrac{t}{m}, \\[.5em] r(t) = C_2 \sqrt{1 + \cot^2 \dfrac{\varphi(t)}{2}}, \end{gather}$$
which also can be obtained directly from the known solution in $(q,p)$ half-plane and coordinate transformation rules.
To sum up, the effect of the wall is accounted for via the change of the phase space topology. Thus, particles are considered free, with a Hamiltonian being a kinetic energy which is preserved. As far as I reckon the phase space is not a cotangent bundle of a configuration space anymore. If this is true along with all the above derivation, this represents probably the most simple case of a phase space that is not a cotangent bundle.
Although at first I was guided by geometrical reasoning about the phase space, now I have been thinking about the coordinate transformation itself. I came up with another transform, which is much closer to the original coordinates:
$$\begin{cases} p = \operatorname{sgn} \! \left(\, \widetilde q \,\right) \, \widetilde p, \\[.5em] q = \left|\, \widetilde q \, \right| . \end{cases}$$
Here it is assumed that $\frac{d}{dx} \operatorname{sgn} x = 0$. Then $dp \land dq = d \, \widetilde p \land d \, \widetilde q$ and the Hamiltonian is the one of a free particle:
$$H = \frac{\; \widetilde p^{\, 2} \!}{2m}.$$
Like with trigonometric coordinate transformation there seems to be a need to choose the right branch for the transform $q \mapsto \widetilde q$, but since $q \geqslant 0$ there is no ambiguity.
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