Acceleration of a body rolling down an inclined plane is given by:
$$\frac{g\sin\theta}{1+\frac{k^2}{r^2}}$$
$g$=acceleration due to gravity
$\theta$=angle of inclined plane
$k$=radius of gyration
$r$=radius of abject
How come acceleration is independent of coefficient of friction of plane when friction itself is causing the torque? I am not able to understand this although I am able to derive the formula on my own.
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