Using the plane wave ansatz ϕ(x)=eikμxμ
The various books and sources I've checked just confused me even more. Peskin and Schroeder just plug in the integral equation (Fourier modes) by analogy with the harmonic oscillator solution. Schwartz gives a very strange reason that the energy factor is just for convenience. In Srednicki the author writes it as f(k) without an explicit form. In Mandl and Shaw, they just state the equation without any justification.
My best guess is that those come from the quantization process, but how does one do it in this case explicitly?
Answer
Let us start with the ansatz (I'll assume mostly plus metric signature)
ˆϕ(x)=∫d3k(2π)3/2(ˆAkeik⋅x+ˆBke−ik⋅x)
[ˆϕ(x,t),ˆ˙ϕ(y,t)]=iδ(x−y).
2Ek[ˆAk,ˆA†k′]=δ(k−k′)
Detailed calculation
Taking the time derivative of the field we get
ˆ˙ϕ(x)=∫d3k(2π)3/2(−iEkˆAke−iEkt+ik⋅x+iEkˆA†keiEkt−ik⋅x).
Then the commutator between the field and its time derivative (more generally its conjugate) is
[ˆϕ(x,t),ˆ˙ϕ(y,t)]=∫d3kd3k′(2π)3{iEk′[ˆAk,ˆA†k′]e−i(Ek−Ek′)t+i(k⋅x−k′⋅y)+iEk[ˆAk′,ˆA†k]ei(Ek−Ek′)t−i(k⋅x−k′⋅y)}=∫d3kd3k′(2π)3{iEk′[ˆAk,ˆA†k′]e−i(Ek−Ek′)t+iEk[ˆA−k′,ˆA†−k]ei(Ek−Ek′)t}ei(k⋅x−k′⋅y)
iδ(x−y)=i∫d3k(2π)3eik⋅(x−y)=i∫d3kd3k′(2π)3δ(k−k′)ei(k⋅x−k′⋅y)
[ˆAk,ˆA†k′]+[ˆA−k′,ˆA†−k]=δ(k−k′)Ek
to which [ˆAk,ˆA†k′]=δ(k−k′)/2Ek is the solution.
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